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Nov 26, 2011 at 9:45 history edited J. M. ain't a mathematician
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Feb 28, 2011 at 14:27 vote accept Bey
Feb 27, 2011 at 20:27 answer added Eric Naslund timeline score: 5
Dec 7, 2010 at 5:08 comment added Bey Thanks for your help, Robin and Qiaochu. If either of you post your comment as an answer, I will upvote.
Dec 4, 2010 at 19:18 comment added Robin Chapman As the integrand is positive and continuous, the questions of whether it is a Lebesgue integral and whether it is an improper Riemann integral as the same. Then it's just a question of showing the integral converges as $x$ goes to infinity and to zero. Going to zero is the more delicate of the two. Also there are theorems regarding differentiation of integrals under the integral sign. There are conditions but they do apply in this case.
Dec 4, 2010 at 19:15 comment added Qiaochu Yuan 1. Bound it by something more convenient. Remember that exponentials eventually outgrow polynomials. For y less than 1 you want two different bounds at 0 and at infinity. 2. Have you tried letting the lower bound be positive and then letting it tend to zero?
Dec 4, 2010 at 19:08 history asked Bey CC BY-SA 2.5