Timeline for Prove: $ \lVert \mathbf{x} \rVert_p = \sup \frac{\lvert \mathbf{x} \cdot \mathbf{y} \rvert}{\lVert \mathbf{y} \rVert_q} $
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 8, 2020 at 0:48 | vote | accept | Jeremy Lindsay | ||
| Oct 1, 2020 at 18:17 | history | edited | Martin Argerami | CC BY-SA 4.0 | added 72 characters in body |
| Oct 1, 2020 at 13:27 | comment | added | Martin Argerami | There was a $p$ missing on the right. And $q(p-1)=p$. | |
| Oct 1, 2020 at 11:42 | history | edited | Martin Argerami | CC BY-SA 4.0 | edited body |
| Oct 1, 2020 at 7:13 | comment | added | Jeremy Lindsay | 2. For the reverse inequality, why are we allowed define $\mathbf{y}$? Shouldn't we be considering all $\mathbf{y} \in \mathbb{R}^n$? In fact I don't understand what the reverse inequality (equality) is for. | |
| Oct 1, 2020 at 7:10 | comment | added | Jeremy Lindsay | 1. Why is $(\sum_j \lvert x_j \rvert^{q(p-1)})^{1/q} = \lVert \mathbf{x} \rVert_p^{1/q}$? | |
| Oct 1, 2020 at 4:32 | history | answered | Martin Argerami | CC BY-SA 4.0 |