0
$\begingroup$

Let $(G, \cdot)$ be a semigroup (i.e. a set with an associative binary operation) and fix some $e\in G$. If

1) $\forall g\in G: e\cdot g=g$ (left identity),

2) $\forall g\in G~ \exists g^{-1}\in G: g\cdot g^{-1}=e$ (right inverse),

3) $\forall g,h\in G: g\cdot h=e\Rightarrow h=g^{-1}, h\cdot g^{-1}=e\Rightarrow h=g$ (unique inverse),

must $(G, \cdot)$ be a group? I know that a left idenitity and right inverse don't necessarily give a group, and that a unique left identity and unique right inverse give a group. Yet this question I have no clue how to attempt.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Axiom 2-3 is awkwardly written, since right inverse is not unique. If 2 is existence of a right inverse, then it has no reason to be written $g^{-1}$. If you mean you fix such a function, it should be part of the axiom: you have a function $g\mapsto g^{-1}$ satisfying axioms 2,3. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 11, 2019 at 17:44

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

A semigroup with a left identity and unique right inverses is not necessarily a group. Here is an example:

Let $G$ be any set with more than one element and call one of the elements $e$. Define a multiplication on $G$ by $x\cdot y = y$. This is associative, since $x\cdot(y\cdot z) = (x\cdot y)\cdot z = z$. For all $x\in G$ we have $e\cdot x = x$, so $e$ is a left identity (as is every other element of $G$). Also, $x\cdot y = e$ if and only if $y = e$, so each $x$ has a unique right inverse, namely $e$. But $(G,\cdot)$ is not a group, since there is no right identity.

EDIT: Looking closely at your axiom $3$, you seem to be requiring something more than unique right inverses. It seems that you also want an element to be the right inverse of at most one element; equivalently, if an element has a left inverse, it must be unique. In this case, $(G, \cdot)$ must indeed be a group.

To prove this, it suffices to show that a right inverse is also a left inverse. Choose any $x\in G$ and consider the product $x'\cdot x\cdot x'\cdot x''$, where $x'$ denotes a right inverse. On the one hand, $$x'\cdot (x\cdot x')\cdot x'' = x'\cdot e \cdot x'' = x'\cdot x'' = e.$$ On the other, $x'\cdot x\cdot (x'\cdot x'') = x'\cdot x\cdot e$, which must also be $e$. Since the right inverse of $x'$ is unique, $x'' = x\cdot e$. It follows that $$ x''\cdot x' = (x\cdot e)\cdot x'= x\cdot(e\cdot x') = x\cdot x' = e. $$ Hence $x'$ is a right inverse for both $x$ and $x''$, so $x = x''$. Finally, $x'\cdot x = x'\cdot x'' = e$, so the right inverse of $x$ is also its left inverse.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.