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I have the function $$g(\theta) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{c}\text{exp}\left(-\frac{\theta^2}{4}c\right) \text{exp}\left( -\frac{1}{c}\right) dc$$ and I want to prove that as $|\theta| \rightarrow 0$, $g(\theta) \rightarrow \infty$.

Having seen something similar, my best try is to find a function $h(\theta) \leq g(\theta)$ with $h(\theta) \rightarrow \infty$ as $|\theta| \rightarrow 0$. I'm fairly confident the function below works.
$$h(\theta) = \frac{1}{\pi ^2 2^{3/2}} \text{exp}\left(-\frac{\theta^2}{4}\right) \text{log}\left(1 + \frac{8}{\theta^2}\right)$$ I came up with it after learning the lower bounds of the exponential integral and thinking my function was similar. And after playing with it numerically (see image below where red is $h(\theta)$ and blue is $g(\theta)$, I'm satisfied that $g(\theta) > h(\theta)$. I just haven't figured out how to prove it. Any thoughts?

enter image description here

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4 Answers 4

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I'm not sure what kind of tools are available to you, but your original claim follows pretty easily from the monotone convergence theorem, which implies that $$\lim_{\theta \to 0} g(\theta) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-\frac{1}{t}}}{t}\,dt = \infty$$ If you specifically need this lower bound, perhaps another commenter may know better than I do. I suspect you could prove a different lower bound directly using some Taylor expansions and a bunch of calculation (perhaps something like this is worth trying yourself), but I'd rather avoid the details unless it's really necessary.

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  • $\begingroup$ Wow @Series Enjoyer. It's been 3 years since I've even thought about the MCT. Thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 16 at 20:42
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An explicit way (assuming $\theta^2/4 < 1$): \begin{align} g(\theta) &\geq K \int_1^{\infty}\frac1c \exp \left(-\frac{\theta^2}{4}c \right) \, dc \\ &= K\int_{\theta^2/4}^{\infty}\frac1t \exp \left(-t \right) \, dt \\ & \geq K\int_{\theta^2/4}^{1}\frac1t \exp \left(-t \right) \, dt \\ & \geq \frac{K}{e}\int_{\theta^2/4}^{1}\frac1t \, dt \to \infty. \end{align}

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  • $\begingroup$ The first step here is unclear to me. How were you able to get rid of exp(-1/c). If that step is valid, then I can use Gautschi's bounds on the exponential integral to get my lower bound. And in the last step it seems you're assuming exp(-1) <= exp(-t) which isn't true. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 16 at 21:48
  • $\begingroup$ @spencergw 1) Here you use that $\exp(-1/c) \geq e^{-1}$ for $c>1$ and you absorb the $e^{-1}$ into $K$. 2) But it is true on the interval the integral is over. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 16 at 21:54
  • $\begingroup$ Got it. Thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 16 at 22:02
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Too long for a comment

$$g(\theta) = \frac1{2 \pi} \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-\frac{\theta^2}4c-\frac1c}}c\, dc\overset{c=\frac{2t}\theta}{=}\frac1{2\pi}\int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-\frac\theta2(t+\frac1t)}}tdt\tag{1}$$ $$\overset{t=e^{z}}{=}\frac1{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\theta\cosh z}dz=\frac1\pi K_0(z)$$ where $\,K_0(\theta)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\theta\cosh z}dz$

At $\theta\ll1$ $$K_0(z)=-\ln\theta+\ln2-\gamma+O(\theta^2)$$ $K_0(z)\,\,\text{at}\,\,z\ll1$

(also, here )

Hence, $$g(\theta)=-\frac{\ln\theta}\pi+\frac{\ln2-\gamma}\pi+O(\theta^2), \,\,\theta\ll1$$ The last expression can be also obtained from the integral (1) directly

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Too long for comments.

If you want good approximation $$K_0(\theta )=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n\,\theta^{2n}$$ using $L=-\Big(\gamma+\log \left(\frac{\theta }{2}\right)\Big)$, the first coefficients are $$\left\{L,\frac{L+1}{4},\frac{2 L+3}{128} ,\frac{6 L+11}{13824},\frac{12 L+25}{1769472},\frac{60L+137}{884736000},\frac{20 L+49}{42467328000},\cdots\right\}$$

Using these terms, the relative error is smaller than $0.1$% if $\theta \leq 3$.

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