I have the function $$g(\theta) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{c}\text{exp}\left(-\frac{\theta^2}{4}c\right) \text{exp}\left( -\frac{1}{c}\right) dc$$ and I want to prove that as $|\theta| \rightarrow 0$, $g(\theta) \rightarrow \infty$.
Having seen something similar, my best try is to find a function $h(\theta) \leq g(\theta)$ with $h(\theta) \rightarrow \infty$ as $|\theta| \rightarrow 0$. I'm fairly confident the function below works.
$$h(\theta) = \frac{1}{\pi ^2 2^{3/2}} \text{exp}\left(-\frac{\theta^2}{4}\right) \text{log}\left(1 + \frac{8}{\theta^2}\right)$$ I came up with it after learning the lower bounds of the exponential integral and thinking my function was similar. And after playing with it numerically (see image below where red is $h(\theta)$ and blue is $g(\theta)$, I'm satisfied that $g(\theta) > h(\theta)$. I just haven't figured out how to prove it. Any thoughts?
