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$\begingroup$ No, I'm afraid you have it backward. It is naive because it assumes the samples are independent. This makes calculations much easier. The predictors are treated as if they are naive of conditions. The predictors are treated as if they essentially independent. analyticsvidhya.com/blog/2017/09/naive-bayes-explained $\endgroup$

mccurcio
– mccurcio

2020-08-17 20:30:40 +00:00
Commented Aug 17, 2020 at 20:30

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