Timeline for The distribution of phase angle between identical zero mean Gaussian random signals?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
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| Mar 8, 2019 at 16:53 | comment | added | Marcus Müller | @laptop2d "good chance they'll not be the same": The probability of them being the same is literally 0 :) And as said, your interpretation is what I agree the examiners had in their bonkers minds. (Love how that rolls of the tongue – bonkers.) | |
| Mar 8, 2019 at 16:26 | comment | added | Voltage Spike♦ | If I pick two different numbers that are normally distributed, there is a good chance that they will not be the same, so there would exist some phase between them. The question is bonkers for sure, but that's my interpretation of it. | |
| Mar 8, 2019 at 16:20 | comment | added | Marcus Müller | @EdgarBrown exactly why I posted my answer. I still think this answer is what the examiners had in mind. Look at the other questions OP asked for a cabinet of horrors of sloppily formulated questions, wrong unit capitalization and other crimes against engineerity. | |
| Mar 8, 2019 at 16:19 | comment | added | Edgar Brown | Although this seems to be the correct answer, it is relying on an invalid assumption. The phase between two random signals is not well-defined. The only definition that would make sense would be using the correlation, but that would just give you delay not phase. And, if the signals are white, it will be zero. The mere idea of “phase” doesn’t make sense in this context. | |
| Mar 8, 2019 at 16:07 | history | answered | Voltage Spike♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |