The basic problem with the inverting configuration is that your source impedance Rin will also play a role in your gain. Therefore, the gain of the 1st stage of the amplifier you propose will be: $$Gain_{AOP1} = -\frac{R_1}{\left(R_2 + R_{in}\right)}$$.
If your Rin isn't well-defined (i.e. it can vary with respect to frequency or some other parameter), then this is undesirable. Of course, if you know the max. value your Rin can take, then you can take R2 to be around 2 orders magnitude higher than Rin so that the gain error due to your source impedance Rin is minimized.
In order to not deal with this, your book's answer uses the fact that, ideally, the input impedance of the op-amp is very high. Therefore, it doesn't matter whether Rin varies or not. You can, easily, see this if you imagine that there's a large R from the (-) input of the op-amp to ground. If you have a resistive voltage divider with a large R to ground, then you can imagine that the ratio towards the (-) input is very close to 1.
There other more complicated considerations to chose between both op-amp amplifier configurations, but your book is limiting to consider the input impedance of the amplifier to be as high as possible. Even though they don't say it, the closed-loop gain of the amplifier has to do with it, as I mentioned in my previous paragraphs.
EDIT:
As the other answerer posted, impedance matching isn't useful here since you're looking for a optimum voltage transfer and not power transfer. Power in this situation is just incidental. You just need to take care that your amplifier is able to provide the required output power, which is 0.72W (or 60mA to give a 12V output) given your load.