(posted & answered, then closed in MSE)
I've been interested in the Basel problem and its famous solution $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{n^2}} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}. $$
Recently I saw this video along with a comment (highlighted from the link) stating
Cool fact: Euler actually approximated the sum to 16 decimal places and GUESSED that it was pi^2/6 before rigorously proving it
I know that Euler (and other mathematicians, related post) had approximated the sum by transforming it into a sum that converged quicker: $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2^n n^2} + (\ln2)^2, $$ but I never knew of the second part nor could I find any source that supports this comment. The trusty source ethanyap8680 is likely mixing/making things up.
So, is it even possible for Euler, or anyone for that matter, to guess the sum to be $\frac{\pi^2}{6}$ from the approximation $1.6449340668482264$? The only way I could see it is if they assumed there was some connection to $\pi$ along with some constant, specifically $$ 1.6449340668482264 \approx c\pi^k. $$