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- Define "entirely non-logographic"? Basically all writing systems use logograms to some extent.Draconis– Draconis ♦2025-02-12 02:01:04 +00:00Commented Feb 12 at 2:01
- Fair- that's my own lack of understanding at play, I think! My understanding is that in a logographic system, the symbols convey a semantic value but not a phonetic value - the sound of the symbol must be known independently. In a phonetic system, the symbols convey only their sound, and the meaning must be known independently. Does that clarification track?Frog– Frog ♦2025-02-12 02:30:38 +00:00Commented Feb 12 at 2:30
- 3Coptic script is descended from other scripts (Greek and so on) that weren't used to write Egyptian languages, and it's those scripts which were derived from Egyptian hieroglyphs. What I'm saying is, the word "evolve" being used here makes the scope of the question unclear to me - the Coptic/Egyptian example tells you that scripts mostly change due to them needing adaptation into a language they weren't developed for, and I would guess that the changes from Hieroglyphs to Coptic would be sudden jumps rather than smooth transitions.dROOOze– dROOOze2025-02-12 03:03:19 +00:00Commented Feb 12 at 3:03
- 3Hieroglyphs were primarily phonetic, with most hieroglyphs in a text representing the consonants in the word (some hieroglyphs representing single consonants, some multiple), with a minority being used as semantic determiners, and a much smaller proportion being used genuinely logographically (although many phonetic hieroglyphs have their origin in the consonants found in the word they represent)Tristan– Tristan2025-02-12 10:25:22 +00:00Commented Feb 12 at 10:25
- 1For what it's worth, I think smartphones fairly clearly have increased the use of logograms in written English, from "none to speak of" to 🚀. Granted most uses of emojis are figurative, not literally the object depicted.Steve Jessop– Steve Jessop2025-02-12 20:42:08 +00:00Commented Feb 12 at 20:42
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