Timeline for Why is negative times negative = positive?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 8, 2023 at 14:56 | comment | added | mr_e_man | The fact $(-1)^{-1}=-1$, being equivalent to $(-1)\times(-1)=1$, is essentially what the question is about. It can't be used to justify itself. | |
| Oct 22, 2018 at 14:54 | comment | added | daOnlyBG | For what it's worth, I wish whoever gave me a "-1" score would have the decency to justify their action. | |
| Oct 22, 2018 at 14:53 | comment | added | daOnlyBG | @user500668 Good question. I used to be clever once upon a time. I believe at the time I was just making use of multiplicative inverses while solving "contest style" math problems. | |
| Jul 28, 2018 at 13:27 | comment | added | user500668 | Great answer! Can you explain how you came up with this? I mean it's pretty self explanatory that a number multiplied by it's multiplicative inverse is 1 but using it here is pretty clever. How did you think to use it here? | |
| Nov 19, 2014 at 23:59 | history | answered | daOnlyBG | CC BY-SA 3.0 |