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Jun 4, 2019 at 9:05 history edited MJD CC BY-SA 4.0
elaborate on Peano axiom example
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Dec 5, 2014 at 14:17 history deleted MJD via Vote
Dec 5, 2014 at 14:12 history edited MJD CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 5, 2014 at 1:55 history edited MJD CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 5, 2014 at 1:54 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo If you wish.${}$
Dec 5, 2014 at 1:52 comment added MJD In that case, why did you bring up Goodstein sequences, the Paris-Harrington theorem, and so on? These have nothing to do with Gödel's incompleteness theorems; they are results that are interesting only because they are independent of certain particular sets of axioms.
Dec 5, 2014 at 1:50 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo The question is made in the context of the incompleteness theorem(s). It is not about whether every set of first order axioms is deductively complete.
Dec 5, 2014 at 1:44 comment added MJD @Andres What do you see in the question to suggest that?
Dec 5, 2014 at 1:44 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo This is not really what the question is about.
Dec 5, 2014 at 1:42 history edited MJD CC BY-SA 3.0
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S Dec 5, 2014 at 1:35 history answered MJD CC BY-SA 3.0
S Dec 5, 2014 at 1:35 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by MJD