Timeline for I.I.D. random variables almost sure convergence
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:28 | comment | added | user940 | See my answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/876399/… | |
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:25 | history | edited | Ruth90 | CC BY-SA 3.0 | added 38 characters in body |
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:24 | answer | added | Robert Israel | timeline score: 4 | |
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:23 | comment | added | Ant | Isn't it $M_n = X_1 \cdots X_n$? Why do you write that way? | |
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:22 | comment | added | gt6989b | Just thinking out loud: if $X_i$ are iid, so are $\ln(X_i)$, and so $$\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=0}^n \ln (X_i) \to \mathbb{E}[X_i] = 0$$ a.s. by KSSLN. | |
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:22 | comment | added | shalin | This is false. Just let $X_n=1$ for all $n$. You need the added assumption that $X$ is not a.s. 1, or similar. | |
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:19 | history | edited | gt6989b | CC BY-SA 3.0 | added 21 characters in body |
| Oct 26, 2015 at 18:15 | history | asked | Ruth90 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |