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Aug 21, 2016 at 4:43 comment added Lubin In my book, if you’re working in the integers modulo $5$, then $1/2$ is $3$. Isn’t the product of $2$ and $3$ equal to $1$ there?
Aug 21, 2016 at 3:43 answer added P Vanchinathan timeline score: 1
Aug 20, 2016 at 23:51 answer added S. M. Roch timeline score: 0
Aug 20, 2016 at 23:47 history edited Bhaskar CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 20, 2016 at 23:47 comment added littleO The inverse of 2 is 3 if we're working mod 5.
Aug 20, 2016 at 23:45 comment added Ethan Bolker Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1030943/…
Aug 20, 2016 at 23:42 history asked Bhaskar CC BY-SA 3.0