Skip to main content
5 events
when toggle format what by license comment
May 3, 2023 at 2:36 comment added eugene I have a question.. So, since [∀𝑘∈ℕ,𝑘<0:𝑃(𝑘)] is vacuously true, and if [∀𝑘∈ℕ,𝑘<𝑛:𝑃(𝑘)]→𝑃(𝑛) can be proven for an arbitrary natural number, then 𝑃(0) will be true. And then so will 𝑃(1), 𝑃(2), and cetera. Which arbitrary natural number to prove (other than P(0))? so that the following "then P(0) will be true" comes?
Jun 12, 2020 at 10:38 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Oct 19, 2017 at 8:23 history edited Graham Kemp CC BY-SA 3.0
added 515 characters in body
Oct 19, 2017 at 1:14 vote accept user7240099
Oct 19, 2017 at 1:14
Oct 19, 2017 at 1:11 history answered Graham Kemp CC BY-SA 3.0