Timeline for Strong Induction Requires No Base Case?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 3, 2023 at 2:36 | comment | added | eugene | I have a question.. So, since [∀𝑘∈ℕ,𝑘<0:𝑃(𝑘)] is vacuously true, and if [∀𝑘∈ℕ,𝑘<𝑛:𝑃(𝑘)]→𝑃(𝑛) can be proven for an arbitrary natural number, then 𝑃(0) will be true. And then so will 𝑃(1), 𝑃(2), and cetera. Which arbitrary natural number to prove (other than P(0))? so that the following "then P(0) will be true" comes? | |
| Jun 12, 2020 at 10:38 | history | edited | CommunityBot | Commonmark migration | |
| Oct 19, 2017 at 8:23 | history | edited | Graham Kemp | CC BY-SA 3.0 | added 515 characters in body |
| Oct 19, 2017 at 1:14 | vote | accept | user7240099 | ||
| Oct 19, 2017 at 1:14 | |||||
| Oct 19, 2017 at 1:11 | history | answered | Graham Kemp | CC BY-SA 3.0 |