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Sep 23, 2019 at 7:52 audit First posts
Sep 23, 2019 at 7:54
Sep 21, 2019 at 22:59 audit First posts
Sep 21, 2019 at 23:23
Sep 18, 2019 at 4:20 comment added ruakh @ClaudeLeibovici: Oh, wait, I see. You never mention what equation you were solving, and I made a bad assumption: I thought you were solving the equation $f(x) = y_0$ for some (arbitrary) $y_0$, and I didn't see what was gained by "transforming" that to $g(x) = z_0$ unless there was some relationship between $g$ and $f$ (such as $g(x) = \log f(x)$). I now realize that you were solving the equation $f(x) = 0$, so your "transformation" involves converting that to $f_A(x) = f_B(x)$, then to $g_A(x) = g_B(x)$, then to $g(x) = 0$, where $g_A(x) = \log f_A(x)$ and $g_B(x) = \log f_B(x)$.
Sep 18, 2019 at 3:23 comment added Claude Leibovici @ruakh. Not at all. What you suggest is better that the original function but is almost hyperbolic while $g(x)$ is almost linear.
Sep 17, 2019 at 18:49 comment added ruakh I think you meant to write $$f(x)=\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n a_i^x}{b^x}$$ (with division rather than subtraction). Otherwise your "transform" to $g(x)$ gives a more-or-less unrelated function; no?)
Sep 17, 2019 at 12:43 history edited user21820 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 17, 2019 at 9:52 history edited Claude Leibovici CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 17, 2019 at 1:43 history edited Claude Leibovici CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 17, 2019 at 1:40 vote accept Sunden
Sep 16, 2019 at 17:18 comment added Claude Leibovici @mathmandan. This is correct. Thanks & cheers
Sep 16, 2019 at 16:52 comment added mathmandan Nice (+1)! In your example, I think the notation $p_i$ means the $i$th prime? So for $n=6$, you'd have $(a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_6) = (2, 3, \ldots, 13)$, and $b=17$?
Sep 16, 2019 at 5:53 history answered Claude Leibovici CC BY-SA 4.0