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PierreCarre
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If you consider the map $x \mapsto (x, \phi(x))$ and call it $g$$\Phi $, then you have that $h = f \circ g$$h = f \circ \Phi$.

If you consider the map $x \mapsto (x, \phi(x))$ and call it $g$, then you have that $h = f \circ g$.

If you consider the map $x \mapsto (x, \phi(x))$ and call it $\Phi $, then you have that $h = f \circ \Phi$.

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PierreCarre
  • 24k
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  • 22
  • 39

If you consider the map $x \mapsto (x, \phi(x))$ and call it $g$, then you have that $h = f \circ g$.