Let $X$ be an inner product space.
An orthonormal subset $B \subseteq X$ is called:
(i) a maximal orthonormal set if there is no other orthonormal subset of $X$ that contains $B$
(ii) an orthonormamlorthonormal basis if $\text{span}(B)$ is dense in $X$
Consider the following statements about $X$.
(a) $X$ is complete
(b) every maximal orthonormal subset of $X$ is an orthonormal basis for $X$
Note 1. The converse of (b) (i.e., every orthonormal basis for $X$ is a maximal orthonormal subset of $X$) is always true and easy to prove.
Note 2. The proof that (a) implies (b) is in essentially every textbook that covers Hilbert spaces.
Note 3. If $X$ is separable, then (b) implies (a). See:
- Every incomplete inner product space has a maximal but incomplete orthonormal system
- Example of complete orthonormal set in an inner product space whose span is not dense
- Non total orthonormal set in a non Hilbert inner product space
Question. If X is not separable, does (b) imply (a)?