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Jan 5, 2014 at 18:12 history closed Nick Peterson
Brian Rushton
Olivier Bégassat
Dan Rust
AlexR
Duplicate of Prove $f(S \cup T) = f(S) \cup f(T)$
Jan 5, 2014 at 17:41 review Close votes
Jan 5, 2014 at 18:12
Dec 10, 2013 at 15:20 history edited amWhy CC BY-SA 3.0
formatting
Sep 17, 2013 at 15:08 vote accept Iceman
Sep 17, 2013 at 15:03 history edited Iceman CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 27 characters in body
Sep 17, 2013 at 15:03 comment added anon Consider the act of putting stickers on apples that are already in a bag. After you're done, the set of apples will be comprised of one stickered apple for each apple contained in the original bag.
Sep 17, 2013 at 15:03 comment added Iceman In hindsight I thought it was needed but I see what @ThomasAndrews is saying in that, mentioning that i'm letting $x\in{A\cup{B}}$ implies that I'll be using a particular $x$ for a proof...I will remove that. Thanks everyone!
Sep 17, 2013 at 14:59 comment added D.L. I was speaking of the sentence after the point. I don't understand the utility of the "let $x\in A\cup B$".
Sep 17, 2013 at 14:57 comment added mdp If you're worried about how $f$ interacts with the set builder notation, you can avoid it completely by proving $f(A\cup B)\subseteq f(A)\cup f(B)$ and $f(A)\cup f(B)\subseteq f(A\cup B)$. But as has already been said, your existing argument is correct.
Sep 17, 2013 at 14:56 answer added amWhy timeline score: 9
Sep 17, 2013 at 14:55 comment added Thomas Andrews You sort of misuse $x$ in that first line. "Let $x\in A\cup B$" means "Let $x$ be a particular element of $A\cup B$." Then the next sentence you write, $f[A\cup B]=f\{x\mid x\in A\text{ or } x\in B\}$, which actually is a different usage of $x$.
Sep 17, 2013 at 14:52 comment added D.L. Indeed, it's not the case : your second line is completely true.
Sep 17, 2013 at 14:49 history asked Iceman CC BY-SA 3.0