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Jun 14, 2022 at 7:29 history edited Chris Grossack CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 16, 2014 at 20:49 history edited user26857
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May 16, 2014 at 19:13 vote accept Wooster
May 16, 2014 at 19:08 answer added rschwieb timeline score: 3
Feb 9, 2014 at 19:19 comment added zcn Right, in a PID every ideal is principal, so the primes are precisely of the form $(p)$ for $p$ a prime element. Why do you say that $0$ is not a prime element though (in a domain)? Perhaps a matter of taste, but I see no reason not to include it
Feb 9, 2014 at 19:16 comment added Daniel Fischer @user115654 Right. I often forget that one when dealing with principal ideal domains, since $0$ is not a prime element, and of course the prime ideals are the ideals of the form $(p)$ for primes $p$ then, aren't they?
Feb 9, 2014 at 19:13 comment added zcn @DanielFischer: and $0$ (since $k[[x]]$) is a domain). But these are all of them
Feb 9, 2014 at 15:06 comment added Daniel Fischer And in general $(x+\langle x^n\rangle)^n = \langle x^n\rangle$, so the only prime ideal is $\langle x\rangle$.
Feb 9, 2014 at 15:04 comment added Wooster Well in that case $f = x$ gives $(x + <x^2>)^2 = x^2 + <x^2> = 0 + <x^2>$ so that is also not an integral domain? Thank you for all your help!
Feb 9, 2014 at 14:57 comment added Daniel Fischer It looks like you're on the right track. What about $\langle x^2\rangle$?
Feb 9, 2014 at 14:56 comment added Wooster Ah yes I see that. So there are no elements $f + <x^n>$ s.t $(f+<x^n>)^k = f^k + <x^n> = 0 + <x^n>$ for some k. So for example the $<x^3>$ case is not an integral domain because taking $f=x^2$ gives $f^2 = 0$? Am I thinking of this the right way? I'm not quite sure how we can get a condition on n, thanks
Feb 9, 2014 at 14:45 comment added Daniel Fischer If $\deg f < n$ and $\deg g < n$, then also $\deg (f-g) < n$. If further $x^n \mid (f-g)$, from degree/order considerations it follows that $f-g = 0$. $k[[x]]/\langle x^n\rangle$ is not isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}/(n)$. It is an $n$-dimensional $k$-vector space (and $k$-algebra). If it is an integral domain, it does in particular contain no nilpotent elements (except $0$). What does that say about $n$?
Feb 9, 2014 at 14:39 comment added Wooster Okay thanks! Why does the polynomial have to be unique? Is it correct that this is then isomorphic to the integers modulo n?
Feb 9, 2014 at 14:37 comment added Daniel Fischer Yes, every coset has one unique element that is a polynomial of degree less than $n$. In general, $k[[x]]/\langle x^n\rangle$ is not an integral domain, only for specific $n$.
Feb 9, 2014 at 14:26 history asked Wooster CC BY-SA 3.0