0
$\begingroup$

Let $f(z) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y)$ be a complex function that is differentiable at the point $z_0 =x_0 + iy_0$. Prove that $f'(z_0)= \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} (x_0,y_0) + i \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} (x_0,y_0)$. I have been at this for a while now but ii do not know how to approach this problem. Is that statement even true. I was thinking about the Cauchy rieman equations to see if there is a relation here i could not find nothing. Then i use the definition of derivative but this not right because the function is differentiable at a point so it has to be Cauchy. Anyone help please.

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

2
$\begingroup$

If our function $f$ is differentiable at $z_0$, then $$ \lim_{z \to z_0} \frac{f(z)-f(z_0)}{z - z_0} $$ exists. For this limit to exist, it must exist regardless of how $z$ approaches $z_0$. In particular, we can consider how $z = x + iy$ approaches $z_0$ as $y = y_0$ is fixed, and $x$ varies. Since we assume the above limit exists, we have $$ f'(z_0) = \lim_{x \to x_0} \frac{u(x, y_0) + iv(x, y_0) - (u(x_0, y_0) + iv(x_0, y_0)}{(x + iy_0) - (x_0 + iy_0)}. $$ But you can break this fraction into the sum of two fractions, one involving the function $u$ and one involving the function $v$. From here you will get the desired result.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ oh i see thank man i appreciate it $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 23, 2015 at 21:30
1
$\begingroup$

By definition, $f^{\prime}(z_0) = \mathrm{lim}_{z \to z_0} \frac{f(z)-f(z_0)}{z-z_0} $

If the function is differentiable, then the limit exists. If the limit exists, then it is independent of how $z \to z_0$. In particular, we could fix $y_0$ and approach along $x$.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ i know that but what i am really asking is how do you manipulate $f'(z)$ in order to see the cauchy rieman $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 23, 2015 at 21:30
  • $\begingroup$ If you want to get Cauchy-Riemann out of $f^{\prime}$, first evaluate by approaching along $x$, then do the same thing but approaching along $y$. You'll get two expressions that have to be equal, so their real and imaginary parts have to be equal as well. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 23, 2015 at 21:32
  • $\begingroup$ cool thanks guys i appreciate it $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 23, 2015 at 21:33

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.