Are the following true?
$\operatorname{scalar} \circ \operatorname{function} = \operatorname{scalar} \times \operatorname{function}$
$\operatorname{function} \circ \operatorname{scalar} = $ the function evaluated at that scalar.
Background:
Let $f:E \to F, g: F \to G$, where $E,F$ and $G$ are normed vector spaces. The chain rule tells us: if $f$ is differentiable at $x_0$ and $g$ is differentiable at $f(x_0)$, then $g \circ f$ is differentiable at $x_0$, and:
$$D(g\circ f)(x_0) = Dg(f(x_0)) \circ Df(x_0)$$
I'm having some confusions when it happens that one of these mappings is a scalar.
For instance, to find the differential of the square root of the inner product on a real pre-Hilbert space ($0$ excluded), we would define the mapping $x \to \langle x, x \rangle$, find its differential, then consider the square root map on $(0, \infty)$. The square root of the inner product is just the composition of these two. But how does its differential map look like?