Let $A$ and $B$ be uncountable sets; with arbitrary elements $a\in A$ and $b\in B$. Further, let $f:A\to B$ me a map. I have two-related questions:
Can I define the cartesian product $\prod_{a\in A}f(a)$?
If the above is yes, is is true that $\prod_{a\in A}f(a)\equiv\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}f(a)$?
I have doubts in (1) because $A$ is uncountable, and therefore I’m not sure whether the expression “$\prod_{a\in A}$” makes any sense —unless $\prod_{a\in A}$ is to be read as $\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}$. Hence, question (2).