I am currently studying distributional Jacobian determinants as a relaxation of point wise Jacobian determinants and I have some trouble understanding something.
So let $\textrm{det} Du(x)$ note the point wise Jacobian determinant for $u\in W^{1,p}(\Omega)$ for $\Omega\subset\mathbb{R}^n$. The distributional Jacobian is more generally defined as $\textrm{Det}Du(x) = \frac{1}{n}\textrm{div}(\textrm{adj}Du\cdot u)$ and we usually consider it as a distribution. As far as I`ve understood correctly the distributional determinant has good continuity properties if $p>n$, since then $\textrm{Det}Du$ is in $L^q(\Omega)$ for some $q>1$.
Does that already imply that det $=$ Det if $p>n$?
My approach would be to approximate some $u\in W^{1,p}$ by smooth functions, for which we know that Det $=$ det and deduce the result from the weak continuity in $L^q(\Omega)$. Does that work?
My second question concerns an the following:
A common example that these definitions can differ, if $p<n$ is $u = \frac{x}{|x|}$ on $\Omega = B_1(0)$. And here I got stuck. It is obvious that det$Du = 0$ a.e. However, apparently if we take any sequence of functions $u_k$ converging to $u$ in $W^{1,p}(\Omega)\cap L^\infty (\Omega)$, we get that $\textrm{det}Du_k\overset{\ast}{\rightharpoonup}\mathcal{L}^n(B_1(0))\delta_0$ in the sense of distributions. Do you have any guidance on how to understand that? How can I show this property?
May thanks in advance for any tips!