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Jun 25, 2023 at 16:50 vote accept Denis Cousineau
Jun 25, 2023 at 15:42 answer added Maniues timeline score: 5
Jun 25, 2023 at 0:57 comment added apsillers If a non-human did use your work in contravention of your license, whom would you meaningfully sue in court? This target defendant is your user. I think it's perfectly possible to have license that forbids particular modes of mechanical use, but the law does not recognize non-humans as having sufficient independent agency such that they can be afforded a license to use a copyrighted work. You must instead limit within what kinds of systems a human may employ your work. In any case, a license with terms like this wouldn't be recognized as a free or open source license by the FSF or OSI.
Jun 24, 2023 at 23:18 history edited curiousdannii
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Jun 24, 2023 at 23:17 comment added curiousdannii Non-humans can't use content. Any AI/bot is being used by humans, and the license applies to them.
Jun 24, 2023 at 20:31 comment added Denis Cousineau @MadHatter: chess mat? What if I do not want bots to read the scripts or code? I do not want these to copy the code? Is there any restriction that can be applied?
Jun 24, 2023 at 20:07 comment added MadHatter Then I don't think you have a problem, since every such action is initiated by a human being. If I write a web script that goes and gets thousands of such pieces of content and feeds them to my LLM, nonetheless, I am the licensee in each case.
Jun 24, 2023 at 18:59 comment added Denis Cousineau @MadHatter Of course, there are infinite scenarios, but let's stick for the moment to restricting the proximate "user" only (I put quotes as it is not a human user).
Jun 24, 2023 at 18:46 comment added MadHatter What about a person who takes it, then manually feeds it to a piece of software such as a large language model? That is, are you looking to regulate the final use, or the proximate user?
S Jun 24, 2023 at 16:50 review First questions
Jun 25, 2023 at 8:48
S Jun 24, 2023 at 16:50 history asked Denis Cousineau CC BY-SA 4.0