Timeline for How do I derive the Dirac Lagrangian?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 16, 2022 at 6:45 | vote | accept | JavaGamesJAR | ||
| Nov 15, 2022 at 17:29 | comment | added | mike stone | You are right. The mass term should be outside the parentheses, I did not notice that. | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 17:24 | comment | added | Ghoster | I’m confused. How are they equivalent when the second has a mass term that is half the mass term in the first? | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 13:48 | review | Low quality answers | |||
| Nov 15, 2022 at 15:26 | |||||
| Nov 15, 2022 at 13:37 | comment | added | mike stone | You get one from the other by adding a total derivative. That is the usual way of getting equivalent Lagrangians -both classical and quantum. | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 13:33 | comment | added | JavaGamesJAR | Well, because the second follows from the first one. But in general, we could multiply lagrangian by 2, for example. That would not affect the equation we derive, but it is not the same lagrangian. | |
| Nov 15, 2022 at 13:28 | history | answered | mike stone | CC BY-SA 4.0 |