Timeline for Why do we Wick rotate before regularizing Feynman diagrams?
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7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 19, 2024 at 3:05 | vote | accept | CBBAM | ||
| Jan 7, 2023 at 9:39 | comment | added | Quillo | Good general question, it may be useful to list here some related questions for future users: physics.stackexchange.com/q/457591/226902 physics.stackexchange.com/q/455387/226902 physics.stackexchange.com/q/525092/226902 physics.stackexchange.com/q/110360/226902 physics.stackexchange.com/q/374900/226902 | |
| Jan 7, 2023 at 9:20 | comment | added | CBBAM | @JeanbaptisteRoux By a non-degenerate inner product I assume you mean $(u,v) = 0$ for all $v$ implies $u = 0$? | |
| Jan 7, 2023 at 9:17 | answer | added | Qmechanic♦ | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jan 7, 2023 at 9:11 | comment | added | Jeanbaptiste Roux | I don't have Folland's book at hand, so I will not post an answer as I don't have the context. The idea is to use the fact that the inner product in Euclidean space is non-degenerate, as opposed to the Lorentzian one. This means we can safely use the "ball parametrization" of the space, where the radius variable we integrate on is zero only at the origin. | |
| Jan 7, 2023 at 8:55 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | edited tags | |
| Jan 7, 2023 at 8:50 | history | asked | CBBAM | CC BY-SA 4.0 |