I see this statement from time to time.
But when I look at scattering in QED or phi-4 theory, I don't understand how classical calculation can reproduce these amplitudes.
To what extent is this statement valid?
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- 2$\begingroup$ Possible duplicates: physics.stackexchange.com/q/270428/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$Qmechanic– Qmechanic ♦2024-03-25 05:21:45 +00:00Commented Mar 25, 2024 at 5:21
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