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Aug 19 at 15:48 history edited Theguyabovemeislying CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 19 at 15:17 history edited Theguyabovemeislying CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 19 at 15:02 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Yeah youre right let me just edit the answer
Aug 19 at 14:47 comment added Dan You "removed the concern over 1-1 correspondences" and then you said "whatever consideration we previously had for correspondence between lines on A and B is radically changed". Why should it matter if it was radically changed, if we weren't concerned about it? Perhaps you could edit your answer to clarify, instead of clarifying in comments.
Aug 19 at 14:26 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Upon sleeping on it, I’m confident that my argument doesn’t suggest equal probability if you move the circle to the right (nor, obviously, if you move to the left).
Aug 19 at 2:32 comment added Theguyabovemeislying It’s a cool question but I think you’re dismissing arguments too readily. For what it’s worth I’m reasonably confident my argument is sound.
Aug 19 at 2:14 comment added Dan I downvoted because the answer (and counter-arguments) seem quite hand-wavy to me. But I appreciate your interest in the question.
Aug 19 at 2:07 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Okay, I’m going to sleep on this but I think the resolution is that once any non 0 measure length of A (more than 1 point) is inside B, the ‘denominator’ changes for A in a way it doesnt for B. This is because for every single one of those points enclosed by B, you can pick two different points on B that will yield any direction on the plane. That is, whatever consideration we previously had for correspondence between lines on A and B is radically changed. Also, why the downvote?
Aug 19 at 1:52 comment added Dan When the red circle is coincident with the green circle, the probabilities are (obviously) equal. Then if we start moving the red circle to the left, the probability that $\overleftrightarrow{AB}$ intersects the black circle decreases then increases, hitting equality with $\overleftrightarrow{BC}$ precisely when the red circle is tangent to the green circle.
Aug 19 at 1:45 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Well no probably not true if you move further out… you can’t sweep the plane anymore for one. But as long as there’s a point of contact, you can. How sure are you of these simulations? Perhaps every red circle that’s still in contact with the green circle and colinear keeps the same probability
Aug 19 at 1:38 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Also I’m curious about these other values. Have you run simulations and found different probabilities? Clearly the probability is equal if both circles overlap completely, and it looks like that holds at 1 shift over. I’d conjecture even that it might hold for any integer number of shifts over
Aug 19 at 1:25 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Hmm… let me think about this. My instinct is to say that my argument would no longer apply - I think its very much dependent on the single point of contact and the relative positioning of A and B
Aug 19 at 1:11 comment added Dan I seem to have misunderstood what you mean by shadow, but anyway there is another problem: Suppose we move the red circle a little bit (say half a radius) to the right. Your argument about shadows would still imply that the two probabilities are equal, but simulations suggest otherwise.
Aug 19 at 0:45 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Wait sorry I’m confused - I’m pretty slow right now, it’s been a full day. What’s the objection?
Aug 19 at 0:43 comment added Theguyabovemeislying In particular, you can pick two points on the circle B so that the line they produce is arbitrarily close to the horizontal tangent without hitting T. For example, let C be the top point on B and let the other point be anything counterclockwise of it but arbitrarily close.
Aug 19 at 0:41 comment added Dan But here is your definition of 'shadow': "Consider the ‘shadow’ of the target circle - the region of the plane where a line passing through the middle circle must hit the target circle."
Aug 19 at 0:36 comment added Theguyabovemeislying I think you may be misinterpreting what I mean by shadow. It’s very easy to get rays from B past the vertical tangent without hitting T.
Aug 19 at 0:31 comment added Dan The shadow of B is much larger than the shadow of A. The shadow of B is bounded by the vertical line tangent to the green and black circles. The shadow of A is bounded by the two lines that are tangent to the red and black circles and make an angle of $30^{\circ}$ to the horizontal.
Aug 18 at 13:58 comment added Theguyabovemeislying You could also probably skip a lot of the caution by just reducing to those two tangents that matter and saying that they dont count because theyre small, and every other line is in a 1-1 correspondence. Im not 100% sure how that handles the other tangents, but im sure someone motivated enough could get around to it
Aug 18 at 13:48 history edited Theguyabovemeislying CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 18 at 5:10 history edited bobble CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 18 at 3:05 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Will explain tomorrow very tired
Aug 18 at 3:04 comment added Theguyabovemeislying Urgh, yeah i think because only the tangent lines arent replicable and only 1 (2) tangents to B pass through both other circles
Aug 18 at 3:03 comment added Dan I don't understand the part after "i found an intuitive solution i think".
Aug 18 at 2:44 history answered Theguyabovemeislying CC BY-SA 4.0