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Mar 27 at 8:11 history unprotected Will.Octagon.Gibson
Oct 26, 2015 at 9:12 answer added DanielSank timeline score: 7
Jun 27, 2015 at 7:28 comment added DanielSank @Anthony I think I understand your question now. Why not post it as a question on Math.SE?
Jun 27, 2015 at 7:14 comment added DanielSank @Anthony can you be more explicit? When you say "zero probability" do you mean probability of falling off or of not falling off? In any case, I think the comment parent to this one addresses a different issue than three comments up, so I'm not sure what you're asking.
Jun 27, 2015 at 5:31 comment added user13598 Well then how do we have zero probability when there are infinite sequences that do, in fact, not fall off the cliff?
Jun 27, 2015 at 2:28 comment added DanielSank @Anthony I think I know what you mean but I don't see how it applies here. The set of every (possibly infinite!) sequence of steps is countable.
Jun 27, 2015 at 1:18 comment added user13598 A question always of interest to me in these contexts... Zero probability still means there can be a countable collection of trajectories for which the drunkard does not fall off the cliff, correct? So at what point in these derivations do we 'handle', in some sense, these solutions? Where do these countably many walks 'go'?
May 3, 2015 at 12:35 history protected leoll2
Apr 23, 2015 at 15:33 answer added Tommy timeline score: 0
Feb 18, 2015 at 14:46 comment added KSmarts en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gambler's_ruin
Feb 18, 2015 at 13:36 answer added Phil M Jones timeline score: 6
Jan 1, 2015 at 19:28 vote accept DanielSank
Jan 1, 2015 at 19:26 vote accept DanielSank
Jan 1, 2015 at 19:26
Dec 27, 2014 at 11:42 comment added Tuncay Göncüoğlu I would think that the probability would be near something like f(p) = (1/2)^p for first few steps and then diverge due to distance, but I also would say that the drunken man would NOT step indefinitely and will eventually sober up.
Dec 27, 2014 at 2:12 answer added Andy Dent timeline score: 0
S Dec 27, 2014 at 1:05 history suggested David Richerby CC BY-SA 3.0
Replaced a confusing occurrence of the word "left" with "allowed" (the previous paragraph was about left and right, so starting the next sentence with "If left" made it hard to parse)
Dec 27, 2014 at 0:54 review Suggested edits
S Dec 27, 2014 at 1:05
Dec 26, 2014 at 19:42 answer added Julian Rosen timeline score: 26
Dec 26, 2014 at 7:06 answer added John Dvorak timeline score: 25
Dec 26, 2014 at 6:06 answer added xnor timeline score: 19
Dec 26, 2014 at 4:32 history edited DanielSank CC BY-SA 3.0
Added math note
Dec 25, 2014 at 22:15 comment added Lopsy IMO it has enough of an "aha!" moment that it fits equally well here. However, the solution I know needs a small technical aside showing that for $p < 1/2$, the probability is not 1.
Dec 25, 2014 at 22:00 comment added Julian Rosen I'm not necessarily opposed to having this question here, but it might be a better fit at Mathematics
Dec 25, 2014 at 21:08 review First posts
Dec 26, 2014 at 1:50
Dec 25, 2014 at 21:05 comment added DanielSank When I first solved this problem I used a technique known mostly to mathematicians and physicists. However, I later learned that a clever sixth grade student could solve it.
Dec 25, 2014 at 21:04 history asked DanielSank CC BY-SA 3.0