From Joshi's Quant Interview book:
The statistics department from our bank tells you that the stock price has followed a mean reversion process for the past 10 years, with annual volatility of 10% and daily volatility 20%. You want to sell a Euro option and hedge it. Which volatility do you use?
Now, I see from the answers, since we want to hedge it, we should use the higher daily volatility since hedging will require (at least) daily rebalancing so we are exposed to daily volatility and thus use the 20% to price the option. This makes sense to me.
Now, Joshi has 2 follow-up questions that I am less sure about.
(1) What would happen if we BOUGHT an option off the bank using the 10% volatility?
-- To me it seems, this would be 'good' for us as it would be cheaper and perhaps the bank may be hurting themselves by 'underselling' the option and not being able to hedge it appropriately. Is my understanding correct? Is there something else to add?
(2) What if we could statically hedge the option today, does that change which volatility we would use?
-- I'm not sure. I assume if we could statically hedge, we could use either since we don't need to rebalance daily and so are not exposed to daily volatility. Is this correct?