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  • \$\begingroup\$ Doesn't this basically just come down to "roll 1d4 3 times. Add each result to 12 once, subtract each result from 12 once"? \$\endgroup\$ Commented Jan 23 at 16:32
  • \$\begingroup\$ I don't believe so. I don't have enough of a mathematical grasp to understand why exactly (I haven't taken a math class since 2006, and I flunked that one), but I know it's not possible to roll an array of all 12s when rolling 3 d4s and +/- 12 from the result. And using this method, to achieve a 16 you have to roll a 6 and a 2, which I am guessing is slightly less likely than rolling a single 4 on a d4. (I can't back that up, it's just a guess.) \$\endgroup\$ Commented Jan 23 at 17:54
  • \$\begingroup\$ @yangking True. It should be 1d5-1. 0-4, not 1-4 like I initially said. Either way, you actually only need to roll three dice to accomplish this. Each roll is the inverse of another. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Jan 23 at 18:04
  • \$\begingroup\$ @MichaelW. the distribution of 1d5-1 and A-F (A=6d6kh1, F=6d6kl1) is different though. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Jan 24 at 5:56