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$\begingroup$ Thank you for your reply. I realise I hadn't squared the semipartial correlation coefficients before summing them. This solves my 1st problem because the unique variance explained = .241 (sum of the squared semipartial correlations (.029 + -.030 + .216 + .026) and .241 subtracted from .325 = .084, so the predictors shared 8% of explained variance. Thank you for the advice about interpretation as well. $\endgroup$

stealthting2014
– stealthting2014

2014-05-27 20:54:48 +00:00
Commented May 27, 2014 at 20:54
1

$\begingroup$ Adam, I feel that you misread the OP's question and so your answer may be irrelevant. No speach was about partial correlations. And "shared variance" was not thought of as covariance. $\endgroup$

ttnphns
– ttnphns

2014-05-28 07:07:37 +00:00
Commented May 28, 2014 at 7:07

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