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I am reading a paper and I do not understand a bit: "We use a hierarchical model such that all slopes are calculated within the same model and the intercepts and slope components are normally distributed among columns. This results in more accurate coefficient estimates."

I would like to understand why do we expect coefficient estimates to be more accurate.

Is it because less information is discarded as there is a use of mean and variance and a normal distribution can be described using only those?

I am reading a paper and I do not understand a bit: "We use a hierarchical model such that all slopes are calculated within the same model and the intercepts and slope components are normally distributed among columns. This results in more accurate coefficient estimates."

I would like to understand why do we expect coefficient estimates to be more accurate.

I am reading a paper and I do not understand a bit: "We use a hierarchical model such that all slopes are calculated within the same model and the intercepts and slope components are normally distributed among columns. This results in more accurate coefficient estimates."

I would like to understand why do we expect coefficient estimates to be more accurate.

Is it because less information is discarded as there is a use of mean and variance and a normal distribution can be described using only those?

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Why are coefficients estimates more accurate when using a hierarchical model?

I am reading a paper and I do not understand a bit: "We use a hierarchical model such that all slopes are calculated within the same model and the intercepts and slope components are normally distributed among columns. This results in more accurate coefficient estimates."

I would like to understand why do we expect coefficient estimates to be more accurate.