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- $\begingroup$ I appreciate the effort. I'm going to have to really study this because it's not my "native tongue". Also, I'm seeing a lot of dollar signs and formatting stuff. Is there something I don't know about that makes it look like real math? $\endgroup$Mike Dunlavey– Mike Dunlavey2010-11-18 17:17:27 +00:00Commented Nov 18, 2010 at 17:17
- 1$\begingroup$ @Mike See meta.stats.stackexchange.com/q/218/919 . $\endgroup$whuber– whuber ♦2010-11-18 18:12:21 +00:00Commented Nov 18, 2010 at 18:12
- 2$\begingroup$ It's a little late, but I finally got time to sit down and re-create your argument. The key was "multinomial coefficient". I had tried figuring it out using plain old binomial coefficients and I was getting all balled up. Thanks again for a nice answer. $\endgroup$Mike Dunlavey– Mike Dunlavey2011-01-25 17:29:09 +00:00Commented Jan 25, 2011 at 17:29
- 2$\begingroup$ Picky point almost 14 years later.... "Because order statistics have Beta distributions..." might be interpreted as meaning the order statistics for $X_1, X_2, ...X_n$ drawn from any distribution have Beta distributions. Only order statistics $X_1, X_2, ...X_n$ drawn from Unif(0,1) have Beta distributions. In general, the order statistics of $X_1, X_2, ...X_n$ will not follow named distributions. $\endgroup$Mkanders– Mkanders2024-07-28 22:47:19 +00:00Commented Jul 28, 2024 at 22:47
- 1$\begingroup$ @Mkanders Thank you for pointing that out. I will include "...uniform..." in that assertion. $\endgroup$whuber– whuber ♦2024-07-29 13:46:07 +00:00Commented Jul 29, 2024 at 13:46
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