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Jul 16, 2020 at 19:33 comment added DIVOC Thanks. Your answer is enough for me to proceed with the task I need to to.
Jul 16, 2020 at 19:26 history edited psboonstra CC BY-SA 4.0
added 389 characters in body
Jul 16, 2020 at 19:20 comment added psboonstra I see now that my answer was incomplete. I have edited it to include how to calculate the hazard for a general error term $W$. With regard to your comment: generally the baseline hazard is called 'baseline' because it doesn't include any covariates, that is, it common to all observations. In contrast, your expression $h_0(t\exp(-x^\top \beta/\sigma))$ is an expression of covariates $x$, so I don't quite understand what you mean. Hopefully my edited answer clears up any confusion.
Jul 16, 2020 at 19:15 history edited psboonstra CC BY-SA 4.0
added section on calculating the hazard
Jul 16, 2020 at 18:27 vote accept DIVOC
Jul 16, 2020 at 17:21 comment added DIVOC So, just to confirm, if I want to plot the hazard associated to individual $i$, I need to plot the hazard $h_0(t\exp(-x^T\beta/\sigma))\exp(-x^T\beta/\sigma)$? Where $h_0$ is the baseline hazard (not necessarily Weibull).
Jul 16, 2020 at 16:45 history edited psboonstra CC BY-SA 4.0
cleaned up language regarding AFT assumptions; need the tidyverse
Jul 16, 2020 at 16:39 history answered psboonstra CC BY-SA 4.0