Timeline for Are the relations in fixed, random and mixed effect models and multilevel models causal?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 3, 2015 at 3:14 | comment | added | N Brouwer | Gelman and Hills multilevel modeling book has a pretty good chapter on causal inference. | |
| Jun 25, 2013 at 16:48 | vote | accept | Tim | ||
| Jun 25, 2013 at 9:39 | comment | added | Glen_b | @NickCox Indeed; there are models that are used as a basis by which to infer causality, which are at least suggestive of causality (by satisfying some of the notions of classical causality like notional effects being subsequent to cause -- requiring a time dimension!). e.g. Granger-causality has predictive power and is suggestive of causality in that sense - but could have both left and right sides caused by a 3rd variable. Since the question wasn't about models with such a time-element (at least not specifically), I didn't address that. To show actual causality requires careful experiments. | |
| Jun 25, 2013 at 8:41 | comment | added | Nick Cox | +1. Juxtapose this neat comment from @Glen_b and the answer by Andy and you get a spectrum of opinion on the question. For many econometricians and some others, such and such set-up they define as being "causal", regardless of other meanings. For many others, what is causal is a matter of what is happening out there (e.g. in terms of mechanisms), and not defined mathematically at all. There are books and books and books on this.... | |
| Jun 25, 2013 at 5:15 | comment | added | Glen_b | There's nothing inherent in those models that makes them causal. Causality, in respect of such models -- if it's inferred at all -- comes from other considerations than the models. | |
| Jun 24, 2013 at 20:39 | answer | added | Andy | timeline score: 9 | |
| Jun 24, 2013 at 18:51 | history | asked | Tim | CC BY-SA 3.0 |