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Nov 10, 2024 at 15:46 comment added Sextus Empiricus A good thought experiment to test/determine whether something is a probability statement is to imagine whether one can gamble on the statement and whether one can make computations about the outcome of the gamble. –– On a related note, for a while I used to participate in a weekly lotery and used a solipsistic Copenhagen interpretation of quantum mechanics by not looking at the outcome of the before last lotery, such that I was always a millionaire , at least in one of the quantum states. –– Just because it has happened and has become deterministic doesn't mean that probability doesn't apply.
Apr 17, 2024 at 17:09 comment added AdamO It's almost guaranteed that a practitioner is going to read published research which reports a CI. So the answer may be that it's always important to understand CI. The nuance might be at what depth? And in fact this is in most answers you've already received.
Apr 17, 2024 at 8:45 answer added Frans Rodenburg timeline score: 3
Apr 17, 2024 at 7:59 comment added Frans Rodenburg Not sure if it is appropriate to share here, but I made a video about just this to hopefully make it more intuitive: youtu.be/jrUrjv_yM0M
S Apr 17, 2024 at 3:49 history suggested Graham Bornholt
The frequentist tag should lead to better answers
Apr 17, 2024 at 3:43 review Suggested edits
S Apr 17, 2024 at 3:49
Apr 17, 2024 at 3:09 answer added Acccumulation timeline score: 1
Apr 16, 2024 at 16:32 answer added EngrStudent timeline score: 2
Apr 16, 2024 at 15:14 answer added Durden timeline score: 4
Apr 16, 2024 at 6:01 comment added Graham Bornholt @whuber Thanks. I see now that my earlier comment misunderstood the meaning of your comment on the answer.
Apr 16, 2024 at 3:40 answer added jonas-eschle timeline score: 2
S Apr 16, 2024 at 2:41 history suggested Peter Mortensen CC BY-SA 4.0
Copy edited (e.g. ref. <https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/there#Pronoun>). Removed unnecessary formatting.
Apr 16, 2024 at 1:40 review Suggested edits
S Apr 16, 2024 at 2:41
Apr 15, 2024 at 20:45 answer added Michael Lew timeline score: -1
Apr 15, 2024 at 14:03 answer added Björn timeline score: 7
Apr 15, 2024 at 13:05 answer added Tasos Papastylianou timeline score: -1
Apr 15, 2024 at 12:13 comment added whuber @Graham The Bayes/Frequentist/Whatever approach is separate from this. If we cannot make probability statements about completed events, then we have destroyed all possibility of modeling data probabilistically. Such confusion of temporal sequence, knowledge, and probability models is counterproductive.
Apr 15, 2024 at 12:11 comment added whuber @Yair The "probability statement" is being made about the interval, not the parameter.
Apr 15, 2024 at 11:20 comment added Graham Bornholt @StephanKolassa I think what whuber is alluding to the fact that "no probabiity any more" would not be accurate for a Bayesian. [The Bayesian posterior probability for an observed 99% CI, for example, could be any number between 0% and 100%, it just depends on the choice of prior.]
Apr 15, 2024 at 9:45 comment added Dikran Marsupial @YairDaon no (non-trivial) frequentist probability statement can be made about them. There are also Bayesian probability statements and trivial frequentist probability statements, 0 and 1, but at that point they are more observations/knowledge than probabilities. Also relevant Q stats.stackexchange.com/questions/26450/…
Apr 15, 2024 at 9:42 comment added Dikran Marsupial Whenever they use them. Nobody should be using statistics they don't understand (or at least they should be collaborating with someone that does understand them).
Apr 15, 2024 at 9:34 comment added Yair Daon @whuber AFAIK Neymann himself took the view I cite above. See accendoreliability.com/…: "...The parameter is an unknown constant and no probability statement concerning its value may be made...".
Apr 15, 2024 at 7:26 comment added Stephan Kolassa @whuber: I don't quite follow your logic. The CI either contains the parameter or doesn't, and in this sense there "is no probability" any more. But we still don't know whether it does.
Apr 15, 2024 at 3:13 comment added whuber Re "no probability any more:" that is not so. If it were correct, then one should be able either to state definitely whether the interval covers the parameter.
Apr 15, 2024 at 1:46 answer added Harvey Motulsky timeline score: 7
Apr 15, 2024 at 1:43 history became hot network question
Apr 14, 2024 at 23:07 answer added jginestet timeline score: -2
Apr 14, 2024 at 19:28 comment added kjetil b halvorsen Some similar Qs: The importance of a correct interpretation of a confidence interval, What's wrong with this interpretation of a 95% confidence interval?, What, precisely, is a confidence interval?
Apr 14, 2024 at 19:23 history edited kjetil b halvorsen
edited tags
Apr 14, 2024 at 18:00 answer added Demetri Pananos timeline score: 14
Apr 14, 2024 at 17:41 history asked Yair Daon CC BY-SA 4.0