Disclaimer: even recommending a book on it is enough for me, but I've searched on 10 so far and none teach how to choose which side of the tail in a general sense.
My test statistic T is: $$\cfrac{(\hat{\beta}_{1} + \hat{\beta}_{2} - (\beta_{1}+\beta_{2}))^2}{\hat{\sigma}^2_{\hat{\beta}_{1}} + \hat{\sigma}^2_{\hat{\beta}_{2}} + \hat{\sigma}^2_{\hat{\beta}_{1},\hat{\beta}_{2}}} $$
My null hypothesis is $$H_{0} : \beta_{1}+\beta_{2} = k$$ My alternative is $$H_{1} : \beta_{1}+\beta_{2} \geq k$$
The test statistic clearly has an $F_{1,n-k}$ distribution, and I want my $\alpha$ to be 0.05. Most books recommend to use the tail in the direction of the null hypothesis, but why is it the case?
My logic is failing me completely, and I can't understand why I would use a right tail rather than the left tail. Thanks for your answers!