(Please note that I'm aware there are already several questions asking about the difference between the two transforms. However, none of them that I could find touch on this specific issue of the affect of singularities.)
I was reading this answer which says that if,
the region of convergence is $Re\{s\}>0$ but there are singularities on the $j\omega$ axis [, then] both transforms exist but they have different forms. The Fourier transform has additional delta impulses. Consider the function $f(t)=e^{j\omega_0 t}u(t)$. From (1), its Laplace transform is given by
$$F(s)=\frac{1}{s-j\omega_0}$$ However, due to the singularity on the $j\omega$ axis, its Fourier transform is
$$F(j\omega)=\pi\delta(\omega-\omega_0)+\frac{1}{j\omega-j\omega_0}$$
The part I bolded is what has me confused. If I understand correctly, the Fourier transform integrates over the entire real number line and is the imaginary part of the the Laplace transform for functions which are zero for negative inputs (since Laplace integrates only on the nonnegative part of the real number line). So it seems like, for the example function in the above quote, Laplace and Fourier should have the same result when $s=j\omega$. Why does the singularity on the imaginary axis mean this isn't true? I don't understand why it adds a delta pulse to the Fourier transform but not the Laplace transform.