There is an exercise in Hartshorne, II.2.10, which asks us to describe $\mathrm{Spec}(\mathbb{R}[x])$ and its topology. This ends up being
- The generic point $(0)$
- Closed points of the form $(x - a)$
- Closed points of the form $(x - z)(x - \overline{z})$ for some $z \in \mathbb{C} \setminus \mathbb{R}$.
So the topological space ends up being the set of the above points with the closed sets being $\mathrm{Spec}(\mathbb{R}[x])$ and finite sets of closed points. I thought this was the end, but when I compared my answer to other solutions available, everyone seems to mention that the residue field at the points $(x - a)$ is $\mathbb{R}$ and at the points $(x - z)(x - \overline{z})$ is $\mathbb{C}$.
I guess that is interesting, but I don't see why this matters? And most solutions seem to include it. So in general, for a ring $A$ with a prime ideal $\mathfrak{p}$, what does $A/\mathfrak{p}$ say about $\mathrm{Spec}(A)$? The only real ring operation I know that relates to the spectrum is localisation at a prime ideal and the stalk at a point.