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I am trying to solve the problem $2.2.11$ in the book A Course in Mathematical Analysis by D. J. H. Garling. I will restate the problem as follow:

"Suppose that $\left(a_1, a_2, \cdots, a_n\right)$ is a sequence of natural numbers. Show that there is a sequence $\left(s_1, s_2, \cdots, s_n\right)$ such that $s_1 = a_1$ and $s_{i+1} = s_i+a_i$ for $1\leq i <n$.

Define the summation notation $$\sum_{i=1}^na_i=s_n.$$ Let $\sigma$ be a permutation of $\left\{1,2,\cdots,n\right\}$. Prove that $$\sum_{i=1}^na_i=\sum_{i=1}^na_{\sigma(i)}.$$"

From my point of view, the value of this theorem is that we are allowed to write $$\sum_{i=1}^na_i=a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n$$ and to apply the commutative property of addition for finite sums. I have solved the first part of the problem, and I am having trouble solving the second part. I would like to know how to perform the induction step of the second part. If you want to give a solution, please keep in mind that as the problem just introduce the summation notation. Therefore, I would appreciate if the induction step avoids shortcuts and assumptions, even if they are simple and intuitive, such as $$ \sum_{i=1}^ma_i + \sum_{i=m+1}^na_i = \sum_{i=1}^na_i. $$ (I have failed to prove so.)

Thanks in advance.

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  • $\begingroup$ Hint: work by induction on $n$. In the inductive case, consider $\sigma(0)$ and $i \mapsto \sigma(i+1)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 7 at 10:01
  • $\begingroup$ @NaïmCamilleFavier That was my attempt (I must do induction on $n$). The main problem is that I couldn't do algebraic manipulation without (in some ways) using the required outcome. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 7 at 15:51
  • $\begingroup$ Well, you will need a lemma like $\sum_{i \in [1, n]} a_i = a_x + \sum_{i \in [1, n] \setminus \{x\}} a_i$ for the inductive case. This can be proved again by induction. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 7 at 16:04

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I will prove this using induction, with the assumption that the commutative and associative property for at most $3$ numbers have been proved before.

Base case: If $n = 1$, then $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i = a_1$. Moreover, there is only one possible permutation $\sigma$: $\sigma(1) = 1$. Therefore, $\sum_{i=1}^n a_{\sigma(i)} = a_{\sigma(1)} = a_1$ as well. Hence, we have the required statement.

If $n = 2$, then $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i = a_1 + a_2$. There are two possible options on what $\sigma(1)$ could be.

If $\sigma(1) = 1$ then $\sigma(2) = 2$. In this case, $$ \sum_{i=1}^n a_{\sigma(i)}= a_{\sigma(1)} + a_{\sigma(2)} = a_1 + a_2. $$ If $\sigma(1) = 2$ then $\sigma(2) = 1$. Similarly, we have $$ \sum_{i=1}^n a_{\sigma(i)}= a_{\sigma(1)} + a_{\sigma(2)} = a_2 + a_1. $$ Combining these facts with the commutative property, we can conclude that $\sum_{i=1}^n a_{\sigma(i)} = \sum_{i=1}^n a_{i}$ is true when $n = 2$.

Induction step: Assume that the statement is true for every natural number up to $k$. Let's investigate the case where $n = k + 1$.

By definition, we have: $$ \sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{\sigma(i)} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}a_{\sigma(i)} + a_{\sigma(k+1)} \text{ and } \sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{i} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}a_{i} + a_{k+1}. $$

If $\sigma(k+1) = k+1$, then $\sigma$ is also a permutation on $I_k$, not just $I_{k+1}$. Using the induction hypothesis, $\sum_{i=1}^{k}a_{\sigma(i)} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}a_{i}$ and hence $\sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{\sigma(i)} = \sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{i}.$

In the other case where $\sigma(m) = k+1$ and $m\neq k + 1$, create a $k$-length sequence $(b_1, b_2, \cdots, b_k)$ defined as $b_i = a_{\sigma(i)}$.

Let $s_w$ be a permutation on $I_k$ such that $$ \begin{cases} s_w(i) = i \text{ if } i\notin \{m; k\} \\ s_w(m) = k \\ s_w(k) = m \end{cases}. $$

Using the inductive hypothesis, we have: $$ \sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{\sigma(i)} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}b_{i} + a_{\sigma(k+1)} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}b_{s_w(i)} + a_{\sigma(k+1)}. $$ This implies $$ \sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{\sigma(i)} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}a_{\sigma\left(s_w(i)\right)} + a_{\sigma(k+1)} = \sum_{i=1}^{k-1}a_{\sigma\left(s_w(i)\right)} + a_{\sigma\left(s_w(k)\right)} + a_{\sigma(k+1)}=\left(\sum_{i=1}^{k-1}a_{\sigma\left(s_w(i)\right)} + a_{\sigma(k+1)}\right) + a_{k+1}.$$

Let $\tilde{\sigma}: I_k \to I_{k+1}$ such that $\begin{cases} \tilde{\sigma}(i) = \sigma\left(s_w(i)\right) \text{ if } i < k \\ \tilde{\sigma}(k) = \sigma(k+1) \end{cases}$. However, $\tilde{\sigma}(i) \neq k + 1$ as $\sigma\left(s_w(i)\right) = k + 1$ implies $i = k$ and $\sigma(k+1) \neq k +1$. Therefore, $\tilde{\sigma}$ is equivalent to a mapping from $I_k$ to $I_k$.

As $s_w$ and $\sigma$ are 2 permutations and $s_w(i) \neq k+1$ for every $i$, $\tilde{\sigma}$ is injective. Also, $\tilde{\sigma}$ is subjective. Let $y \in I_{k}$. There exists $x \in I_{k+1}$ such that $\sigma(x) = y$. If $x = k+1$ then $y = \tilde{\sigma}(k)$. Otherwise, there exists $p$ in $I_k$ such that $\sigma(s_w(p)) = y$. With a notice that $p \neq k$, $p \in I_{k-1}$ and hence $\tilde{\sigma}(p) = y$.

In short, $\tilde{\sigma}$ is a permutation on $I_k$. Therefore, $$ \sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{\sigma(i)} = \left(\sum_{i=1}^{k-1}a_{\sigma\left(s_w(i)\right)} + a_{\sigma(k+1)}\right) + a_{k+1} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}a_{\tilde{\sigma}(i)} + a_{k+1} = \sum_{i=1}^{k}a_{i} + a_{k+1} = \sum_{i=1}^{k+1}a_{i}. $$

The induction step is complete and we have what need to be proven.

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  • $\begingroup$ It's a bit odd to start with $1$ and $2$ as your base cases when your inductive step doesn't require $n > 2$. Just start at $0$! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 8 at 9:38
  • $\begingroup$ @NaïmCamilleFavier I know. But I want to be faithful to the original problem, where it didn't define "sum of 0 number". That also explains why I also did 2 as my base case, to make sure the sum from 1 to k-1 doesn't actually be the "sum of 0 number". $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 9 at 1:04
  • $\begingroup$ I don't see anything that excludes $n = 0$ in the stated problem. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 9 at 9:14
  • $\begingroup$ @NaïmCamilleFavier You are missing the context. From the definition of sequence of the book, the sequence must have at least one member. Nevertheless, in my opinion, you can freely interpret the statement, or any statement, however you like. If you allow a sequence to have 0 number, then so be it. I don't think allowing or not allowing 0-length sequence affects the general structure of the problem and the proof, and we can safely "agree to disagree" on that point. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 9 at 14:09

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