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circuit diagram

Need to find power supplied by 1V source.

This circuit is under supernode section.

Till now i have only solved supernode circuits in which only a voltage source is present between two nodes. So it was easier to relate the node voltages.

But now , since resistors are present alongside voltage sources , I am unable to write down even a single equation.

How to solve this, preferably using nodal/supernode concepts?

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    \$\begingroup\$ Can you write an equation for current through the 14 ohm resistor? \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 6 at 7:10
  • \$\begingroup\$ yes. It will be 2A \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 6 at 7:46
  • \$\begingroup\$ @suffer You do understand that you can move devices around each other when they are in series? By moving the voltage sources they can be combined into a supernode of sorts in the middle. Yes? This is KCL (nodal), right? \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 6 at 9:02
  • \$\begingroup\$ how can I combine , No two voltage Sources are in series. All three of them will be connected to one node (after moving). \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 6 at 9:05
  • \$\begingroup\$ @suffer After moving them you can get something like this. There would only be two unknowns to solve for in this case. And no supernodes, really. (Though, technically, you could call the node area that covers all three voltage sources a supernode and solve it that way, too.) \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 6 at 9:26

1 Answer 1

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You could just label everything. Like this:

enter image description here

I picked a ground point, at random. Any specific point could be selected. But this is the one I picked, above.

Then you can just create a whole bunch of simple KCL equations, plus a few obvious relationships:

$$\begin{align*} \frac{V_{\small{A}}}{R_1}&=I_{\small{Z}} \\\\ \frac{V_{\small{B}}}{R_2}+I_{\small{Y}}&=0\:\text{A} \\\\ \frac{V_{\small{C}}}{R_3}+I_{\small{X}}&=0\:\text{A} \\\\ \frac{V_{\small{D}}}{R_4}&=\frac{V_{\small{E}}}{R_4}+I_{\small{X}} \\\\ \frac{V_{\small{E}}}{R_4}+I_2&=\frac{V_{\small{D}}}{R_4}+I_1 \\\\ \frac{V_{\small{F}}}{R_6}&=I_{\small{Y}}+I_2 \\\\ \frac{V_{\small{G}}}{R_5}+I_1&=\frac{V_{\small{H}}}{R_5} \\\\ \frac{V_{\small{H}}}{R_5}+\frac{V_{\small{H}}}{R_6}+I_{\small{Z}}&=\frac{V_{\small{F}}}{R_6}+\frac{V_{\small{G}}}{R_5} \\\\ V_{\small{A}}&=V_{\small{H}}+V_1 \\\\ V_{\small{F}}&=V_{\small{B}}+V_2 \\\\ V_{\small{D}}&=V_{\small{C}}+V_3 \end{align*}$$

Yeah. That's 11 equations and 11 unknowns. But it is simple to set up. And no supernodes to wonder about. You just assign currents to each voltage source, instead. Then the KCL just flows out from there.

Using SymPy/Python code:

kcl1 = Eq( VA/R1, IZ ) kcl2 = Eq( VB/R2 + IY, 0 ) kcl3 = Eq( VC/R3 + IX, 0 ) kcl4 = Eq( VD/R4, VE/R4 + IX ) kcl5 = Eq( VE/R4 + I2, VD/R4 + I1 ) kcl6 = Eq( VF/R6, IY + I2 ) kcl7 = Eq( VG/R5 + I1, VH/R5 ) kcl8 = Eq( VH/R5 + VH/R6 + IZ, VF/R6 + VG/R5 ) nA = Eq( VA, VH + V1 ) nB = Eq( VF, VB + V2 ) nC = Eq( VD, VC + V3 ) ans = solve([kcl1,kcl2,kcl3,kcl4,kcl5,kcl6,kcl7,kcl8,nA,nB,nC],[VA,VB,VC,VD,VE,VF,VG,VH,IX,IY,IZ]) for i,j in ans.items(): i, j.subs(vals) (VA, 1) (VB, 21/2) (VF, 27/2) (VG, -8) (VH, 0) (IY, -3/2) (IZ, 1/2) (VC, -14) (VD, -10) (VE, -38) (IX, 2) 

And that is also another way to solve it.

Here's a run from LTspice:

enter image description here

Taking into account the signs used by LTspice for voltage source currents (negation), the results match up perfectly.

Using the image I gave you in comments, which uses a different ground reference:

enter image description here

Here's the LTspice results from that perspective:

enter image description here

And everything matches up, again. Just from a different point of view.

Keep your mind flexible. And practice redrawing schematics.


For example, your circuit can be redrawn in simpler form:

schematic

simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab

There's no need for \$V_{\small{A}}\$ and because the \$7\:\Omega\$ and \$14\:\Omega\$ resistors can be combined together there's also no need for \$V_{\small{D}}\$. But the others show up, above.

It's now two much simpler, independent circuits.

The left side is trivially solved since you know, for sure, that there must be \$2\:\text{A}\$ downward through \$R_5\$. It follows that there is a \$42\:\text{V}\$ drop across \$R_5\$, or that \$V_{\small{E}}=-37\:\text{V}\$.

The right side has just two KCL statements: (1) \$\frac{V_{\small{F}}}{R_3}+\frac{V_{\small{F}}}{R_4}=\frac{V_{\small{H}}}{R_3}+\frac{V_{\small{B}}}{R_4}+I_{2b}\$; and, (2) \$\frac{V_{\small{H}}}{R_1}+\frac{V_{\small{H}}}{R_3}+I_{1b}=\frac{V_{\small{F}}}{R_3}\$. Plugging in the numbers, this solves out as: \$V_{\small{F}}=14.5\:\text{V}\$ and \$V_{\small{H}}=1\:\text{V}\$. It is trivial to then find \$V_{\small{G}}=-7\:\text{V}\$.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ Thank you. I never solved a circuit in this way (using only basic equations).I now know a new way to solve circuits. But if something like this comes up in examination , is there any other way to slove this more quickly ? \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 7 at 4:32
  • \$\begingroup\$ @suffer I just added a section below the line. It shows how the entire circuit can be made much simpler to handle. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 7 at 5:30
  • \$\begingroup\$ Thank You very much. Can i ask where did you learn to solve circuits this way. Is there any book that you followed perhaps. This is the first time i saw that a circuit can be broken into two independent ones. I want to learn these type of things too. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 7 at 5:57
  • \$\begingroup\$ @suffer All current sources have INFINITE impedance. So you can split them into two pieces, with the ends just going out into free space/vacuum/nowhere. There's no difference. But I've never taken any electronics courses. I'm self-educated. So I trained myself because I wanted to understand circuits I would read about. The authors usually did a terrible job and I was completely confused. But I found, over time, that I developed a knack. If you take apart enough Gordian Knots things start to sink in, eventually, I guess. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 7 at 6:04
  • \$\begingroup\$ "All current sources have INFINITE impedance. So you can split them into two pieces, with the ends just going out into free space/vacuum/nowhere". All I know about impedance is it is measured in ohms and is equivalent to resistance. But if Impedance is infinity , wont the voltage also tend to infinity according to ohms law. Also how does it follow that we can split the source and let ends free. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Aug 7 at 6:21

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