I've been stuck on this for a couple days and I feel like there's some obvious reason that what I want can't be done:
I want to create 3 random variables $p_1$, $p_2$, and $p_3$ so that every pairwise difference between them is uniformly distributed between $(-1, 1)$.
With 2 variables $p_1$ and $p_2$ this can easily be done by setting $p_1 = 0$ and having $p_2$ be drawn from the uniform distribution $U(-1, 1)$.
With 3 variables, if I ignored the pairwise differences $p_1 - p_3$ and $p_3 - p_1$ then I could construct $p_1$ and $p_2$ as before and set $p_3 = p_2 + x$ where $x$ is drawn from $U(-1, 1)$, but obviously in this construction we have that $p_3 - p_1$ will be the sum of two independently drawn uniformly distributed variables, which is not itself a uniform distribution.
I'll also throw out that it can't be done in the case where the $p_i$s are both independent and identical thanks to this question.
I'd welcome any thoughts on this.