1
$\begingroup$

I've been stuck on this for a couple days and I feel like there's some obvious reason that what I want can't be done:

I want to create 3 random variables $p_1$, $p_2$, and $p_3$ so that every pairwise difference between them is uniformly distributed between $(-1, 1)$.

With 2 variables $p_1$ and $p_2$ this can easily be done by setting $p_1 = 0$ and having $p_2$ be drawn from the uniform distribution $U(-1, 1)$.

With 3 variables, if I ignored the pairwise differences $p_1 - p_3$ and $p_3 - p_1$ then I could construct $p_1$ and $p_2$ as before and set $p_3 = p_2 + x$ where $x$ is drawn from $U(-1, 1)$, but obviously in this construction we have that $p_3 - p_1$ will be the sum of two independently drawn uniformly distributed variables, which is not itself a uniform distribution.

I'll also throw out that it can't be done in the case where the $p_i$s are both independent and identical thanks to this question.

I'd welcome any thoughts on this.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ I'll add that another take-away from the previous question I posted is that the random variables have to have some dependence on each other: if we had some setting $S$ achieving the above constraint, then we could first perform a random permutation over the $p_i$s and then take the setting $S$. By doing the random permutation first, we have that each $p_i$ is distributed identically. Since we know that no valid algorithm for this problem can set each $p_i$ identically and independently, the $p_i$s must be dependent on each other. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 26, 2021 at 16:23

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

I think I figured it out.

Set $p_1 = 0$, let $p_2$ be sampled from $U(-1, 1)$. We then let $$f(x) = \begin{cases} -(x+1) & \text{if $x<0$}\\ 1-x & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$$ and set $p_3 = f(p_2)$. Then we get: $$p_2 - p_3 = \begin{cases} 2p_2+1 &\text{if $p_2<0$}\\ 2p_2-1 &\text{otherwise,} \end{cases}$$ and $$p_3 - p_1 = p_3 = f(p_2).$$ One can verify using standard methods that both $p_2 - p_3$ and $p_3 - p_1$ follow the uniform distribution $U(-1, 1)$, which immediately also implies that $p_3 - p_2$ and $p_1 - p_3$ do too.

$\endgroup$
0

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.