Timeline for If $f$ is continuous, nonnegative on $[a, b]$, show that $\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx = 0$ iff $f(x) = 0$
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 6 at 1:05 | comment | added | mick | not an answer but intuitively imo is that due to continu, the derivative is bounded almost everywhere , hence a riemann sum gives a positive result .... | |
| S Jul 6 at 0:59 | history | suggested | Anerdw | CC BY-SA 4.0 | d(x) looks wrong |
| Jul 6 at 0:43 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Jul 6 at 0:59 | |||||
| Apr 8, 2015 at 2:19 | vote | accept | Adrian | ||
| Apr 8, 2015 at 1:27 | answer | added | TomGrubb | timeline score: 0 | |
| Apr 8, 2015 at 1:25 | comment | added | Jonas Meyer | "Without loss of generality"... You might want to note that $f(x_0)\geq 0$ and $f(x_0)\neq 0$ is equivalent to $f(x_0)>0$. | |
| Apr 8, 2015 at 1:24 | answer | added | DeepSea | timeline score: 5 | |
| Apr 8, 2015 at 1:14 | history | asked | Adrian | CC BY-SA 3.0 |