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Without using the Second Derivative Test, can the convexity of the natural exponential function be shown directly from the definition of convexity? The expression \begin{equation*} e^{t} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{t^{n}}{n!} \end{equation*} can be used. Here is what I have.

The natural exponential function is convex if, and only if, for any pair of conjugate real numbers $s$ and $t$ and for any real numbers $x$ and $y$, \begin{equation*} se^{x} + te^{y} \geq e^{sx + ty} . \end{equation*} This latter inequality is equivalent to \begin{equation*} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{sx^{n} + ty^{n}}{n!} \geq \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(sx + ty)^{n}}{n!} \end{equation*} and to \begin{equation*} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{sx^{n} + ty^{n} - (sx + ty)^{n}}{n!} \geq 0 . \end{equation*} Since $s + t = 1$, this last inequality is equivalent to \begin{equation*} \sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \left( s(1 - s^{n-1})x^{n} + t(1 - t^{n-1})y^{n} - \frac{1}{n!} \sum_{i=1}^{n-1} \binom{n}{i} (sx)^{i}(ty)^{n-i}\right) \geq 0 . \end{equation*}

I am not sure that this last inequality is useful.

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  • $\begingroup$ I would probably proceed using the lemma that a $C^2$ function with a nonnegative second derivative is convex. That fact is easy to prove in numerous ways for the exponential function. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12, 2016 at 21:27
  • $\begingroup$ @Ian Read my post again. I started it with the phrase "without using the Second Derivative Test." $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12, 2016 at 21:31
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry, missed that part. Why do you not want to proceed this way, though? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12, 2016 at 21:32
  • $\begingroup$ @Ian Pedagogical. I am writing notes for a real analysis course (Calculus course), and I wanted to discuss this elementary function right after discussing limits. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12, 2016 at 21:35
  • $\begingroup$ Here is another approach that might play into limits: Use the cfollowing characterisation of convex functions proofwiki.org/wiki/… and show that $\exp$ is its own derivative and positive everywhere. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 12, 2016 at 22:09

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Demonstration in the case that $x > 0$, $y > 0$, and $s, \, t \in \mathbb{Q}^{+}$

Since $s$ is a positive, proper, rational number, there are positive integers $j < k$ such that $s = j/k$, and since $s$ and $t$ are a pair of conjugate numbers, $t = (k - j)/k$. For any positive, real numbers $z_{1} , \, z_{2} , \, \ldots \, z_{n}$, and for any positive integer $n$, \begin{equation*} \left(\frac{z_{1} + z_{2} + \ldots + z_{k}}{k}\right)^{n} \leq \frac{{z_{1}}^{n} + {z_{2}}^{n} + \ldots + {z_{k}}^{n}}{k} . \end{equation*} If $z_{1} = z_{2} = \ldots = z_{j} = x$ and $z_{j+1} = z_{j+2} = \ldots = z_{k} = y$, \begin{align*} (sx + ty)^{n} &= \left(\left(\frac{j}{k} \right) x + \left(\frac{k - j}{k} \right) y\right)^{n} \\ &= \left(\frac{jx + (k-j)y}{k}\right)^{n} \\ &\leq \frac{jx^{n} + (k-j)y^{n}}{k} \\ &= \left(\frac{j}{k}\right)x^{n} + \left(\frac{k-j}{k}\right)y^{n} \\ &= sx^{n} + ty^{n} . \end{align*} Consequently, \begin{equation*} \frac{(sx + ty)^{n}}{n!} \leq \frac{sx^{n} + ty^{n}}{n!} . \end{equation*}

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