3
$\begingroup$

In 3D Euclidean space, we know that distance between 2 points: $a=(x_1,y_1,z_1)$ and $b=(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ is $s^2=(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_1)^2+(z_2-z_1)^2)$from metric $ds^2=dx^2+dy^2+dz^2$. But I was thinking if we have the misfortune of working in spherical coordinates, i.e. only given $a=(r_1,\theta_1,\phi_1)$ and $b=(r_2,\theta_2,\phi_2)$, how can I work out $s^2$?

I suppose I need to do the integration $$\int_a^b (dr)^2+r^2(d\theta)^2+r^2\sin^2\theta(d\phi)^2$$which I tried and got $$\left(\int_a^b dr\right)^2+\left(\int_a^b rd\theta\right)^2+\left(\int_a^b r\sin\theta d\phi\right)^2=(r_2-r_1)^2+(r_2\theta_2-r_1\theta_1)^2+(r_2\sin\theta_2\phi_2-r_1\sin\theta_1\phi_1)^2$$

Is this correct??

$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ Nope. When $r_1=r_2$ you must get something that depends only on $r$ and $\cos(\theta_1-\theta_2)$ and $\cos(\phi_1-\phi_2)$, by en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_law_of_cosines. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 23, 2014 at 0:21
  • $\begingroup$ Why not just to convert $(r_i,\theta_i,\phi_i)$ into cartesian coordinates and compute the distance by the usual way? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 23, 2014 at 0:22
  • $\begingroup$ well, yes I suppose we can just convert to cartesian but I was just wondering if there was a way to do the integral just using spherical polar $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 23, 2014 at 0:24
  • $\begingroup$ For sure. But just notice that the integral of the square is not the square of the integral. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 23, 2014 at 0:26
  • $\begingroup$ @JackD'Aurizio yeh I was a bit suspicious about doing the square of integral...but I was thinking: in cartesian coordinates, $s^2=\int_a^b (dx)^2+(dy)^2+(dz)^2$ and in order to recover from this the familiar $s^2=(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_1)^2+(z_2-z_1)^2$ I did $(\int_{x_1}^{x_2} dx)^2+(\int_{y_1}^{y_2} dy)^2+(\int_{z_1}^{z_2} dz)^2$ and used the similar method in the case of the spherical polar coordinates $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 23, 2014 at 0:35

1 Answer 1

5
$\begingroup$

Assuming that $\theta$ is the latitude and $\phi$ is the longitude we have that the cartesian coordinates of the first point are: $$ (r_1 \cos\theta_1 \cos\phi_1, r_1 \cos\theta_1 \sin\phi_1, r_1\sin\theta_1),$$ so the distance between the two points is given by: $$ \sqrt{r_1^2+r_2^2-2r_1r_2\left(\cos\theta_1\cos\theta_2\cos(\phi_1-\phi_2)+\sin\theta_1\sin\theta_2\right)}.$$

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.