Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of rational numbers that converges to an irrational number $x$. Must it be the case that $x_1, x_2, \dots$ are all irrational?
Let $(y_n)$ be a sequence that converges to a rational number $y$. Define such a sequence where $y_1, y_2, \dots$ are all irrational.
Now these are the 2 questions in my textbook i noticed when posting this that someone had asked the answer to 1) and a similar but less difficult version of 2.
A couple things i noted the defined answer for 1 he used $\pi$ and simply added more digits to it for each part of the sequence. so firstly id like to ask would that really be a full mark answer on a analysis final? secondly and more importantly i was wondering if there was a way to define this where the final number wasn't transcendental.
For 1) I used $ (1+1/n)^n $ s.t. $n \in \mathbb{N} $. For every $n$ this sequence is rational but for $\lim_{ n \to \infty }(1+1/n)^n = e $.
My Question: (i) Is this true and if so is there a definable sequence that holds but doesn't define a transcendental number?
EDIT: Golden ratio from Fibonacci sequence.
For 2) I picked $ 2^{1/n} $ s.t. $ n>1$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}$. I believe every value of this sequence is irrational but the limit should be 1.
My Question: (ii) does the above work? and if possible could I have another example of a sequence where every value is irrational but the limit is rational?
EDIT: $\frac{\sqrt 2}{n}$.