0
$\begingroup$

A player throws a ordinary die with faces numbered $1 $ to $6$.Whenever he throws $ 1$, he gets a further throw.then the probability of obtaining a total score of$ r$ is (Consider cases when $r>6$ and $1<r \leq 6$)---

Let $r=n*k+f$ where $k$ is the number of times 1 is thrown and $ f$ lies between 2 and 6 for the last throw. .the possibility for f is $1/5$.

So total probability is

$$(1/6)^n(1/5)$$

I am not able to eliminate $n$ and maybe this is not the correct approach.

Please help me out.

Thanks

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Are you familiar with probability distribution functions? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 14, 2016 at 23:20
  • $\begingroup$ Yes,just a beginner,I have learnt it during the previous week. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 14, 2016 at 23:21
  • $\begingroup$ No, you are guaranteed a score of at least $2$. For example, if the first roll is a $2$, that is your score. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 14, 2016 at 23:45

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

For $n\leq 6$, clearly $P(1) = 0$ and $$P(2) = \frac16\\ P(3) = \frac16+\frac1{36} = \frac7{36}\\ \vdots\\ P(6) = \frac16+\frac1{36}+\frac{1}{216}+\frac{1}{1296}+\frac{1}{7776} $$ That is, for $2\leq n \leq 6$ $$ P(n) = \frac16 \sum_{k=0}^{n-2}\frac1{6^k} = \frac15 \left( 1-\left(\frac16\right)^{n-1}\right) $$

For $n>6$ the only routes to a score of $n$ are starting with between $n-6$ and $n-2$ ones, and then rolling the right number to land at $n$. This gives $$ P(n) =\frac16 \left[ \left(\frac16\right)^{n-6}+\left(\frac16\right)^{n-5}+\left(\frac16\right)^{n-4}+\left(\frac16\right)^{n-3}+\left(\frac16\right)^{n-2} \right]= \frac{1555}{6^{n-1}} $$

So the full distribution is $$ P(n) = \left\{ \begin{array}{cl} 0 & \mbox{if } n<2 \\ \frac15 \left( 1-\left(\frac16\right)^{n-1}\right) & \mbox{if } 2\leq n \leq 6 \\ \frac{1555}{6^{n-1}} & \mbox{if } n > 6 \end{array} \right. $$

** EDIT NOTE ** IN response to a correction by O. Von Seckendorff, I fixed the exponent in the $n>6$ case, which had erroneously been $n+3$ instead of $n-1$.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ @ Mark Fischler that was a wonderful answer.thanks. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2016 at 0:16
  • $\begingroup$ I'm not sure if I transcript correctly, but the distribution doesn't seem to add up to $1$. Link to WolframAlpha: wolframalpha.com/input/… $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2016 at 0:27
  • $\begingroup$ Okay, there was a problem with the computation for the second part of the distribution. This seems to be the correct form: $P(n) = \frac{1555}{6^{n-1}}$. It adds to $1$ now. @navinstudent Try not be so proud. It was correct except for this mistake. Wolfram: wolframalpha.com/input/… $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2016 at 0:47
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, @ O. Von Seckendorff. I just made a mistake of a factor of 1296. I will fix the error. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2016 at 22:29

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.