This is a problem that I met in a recent exam:
If $(x_n)$ is a real-valued sequence and $(x_n)$ is bounded. Suppose that $$x_n-2x_{n+1}+x_{n+2}\to 0 \ \text{as }n\to \infty.$$ Show that $\lim_{n\to \infty} (x_n -x_{n+1})= 0$.
Here is what I got during the exam. Let $a_n = x_n - x_{n+1}$ and $S_n = \sum_{k=1}^n a_n$, so the problem becomes: If $(S_n)$ is bounded and $\lim_{n\to \infty} (a_n-a_{n+1}) = 0$, then $a_n\to 0$. The boundedness of partial sum plays an important role here. It is well-known that Cauchy-criterion can't be satisfied if we only assume $\lim_{n\to \infty} (a_n-a_{n+1}) = 0$, we need to gurantee this distance decrease to $0$ at a fast rate with order such as $\frac{1}{n^{1+\varepsilon}}$ or $r^n$ with $|r|<1$. My idea is to prove this result by contradiction. Suppose there exists an $\varepsilon>0$, for all $N\in \mathbb{N}$, there exists a number $n_1$ such that
$$|a_{n_1}|\ge \varepsilon.$$ So we can inductively choose a subsequence of $(a_n)$ with absolute sum blowing up, however it doesn't help since $(a_n)$ can be negative. Then I figure there might be some counter-example such that $(a_n)$ is oscillating between $(-\alpha, +\alpha)\supset(-\varepsilon, \varepsilon)$ and $a_n-a_{n+1}$ is of order $1/n$, so the cancellation among $(a_n)$ can still ensure a bounded partial sum. But I failed in either way. Can anyone provide me with some help on this problem? Thank you.