I encountered this problem that I could not figure out, the first form of the Euler Maclaurin summation is:
$$ \sum_{a \leq k \leq b}f(k) = \int_a^b f(x)dx + \frac{f(a)+f(b)}{2} + \sum_{1 \leq i \leq m}\frac{B_{(2i)}}{(2i)!}f^{(2i-1)}(x)|^b_a $$
while its second form is:
$$ \sum_1^N f(k) = \int_1^Nf(x)dx + \frac{f(N)}{2} + \gamma + \sum_{1\leq k \leq m} \frac{B_{2i}}{(2i)!}f^{(2i-1)}(N)+R_m $$
where for both forms $B_i$ represents the $i$th Bernoulli number and $f^{(i)}$ represents the $i$th derivative.
Using (either of ) these formulas, am supposed so show that given the Gamma function $\Gamma(n)=(n-1)!$, we have the following relationship over generalized binomial coefficients:
$$ \binom{n+\alpha}{n} \equiv \frac{\Gamma(n+\alpha+1)}{\Gamma(n+1)\Gamma(\alpha+1)} \sim \frac{n^\alpha}{\Gamma(\alpha+1)} $$
If I use the definition $\Gamma(n)=(n-1)!$, the first equivalence $\equiv$ relation could be derived easily ... But I could not figure out how the Euler Maclaurin equation comes to play ... I am having a hunch it has something to do with proving the $\sim$ relation... Any help ?